Daily Current Affairs Quiz: October 30, 2025

Answer: C [2 and 3 only]
Explanation:

The phrase “Union of States” in Article 1 of the Indian Constitution signifies the unique nature of India’s federal structure.

Statement 1 is incorrect: India’s federation was not formed through an agreement among states (as in the case of the U.S.A.). The states in India do not have a right to secede, and the federation is created by the Constitution itself.

Statement 2 is correct: It implies that no state has the constitutional right to secede from the Union. The unity and integrity of India are indestructible.

Statement 3 is correct: While the Union is indestructible, the boundaries and names of states can be reorganized by Parliament under Article 3.

Answer: A [Article 2 deals with admission of new states not part of India; Article 3 concerns reorganisation of existing states.]
Explanation:

Option A is correct: Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit into the Union or establish new states that were not part of India before (e.g., Sikkim’s admission in 1975). Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new states, alter boundaries or names of existing states, i.e., reorganisation within India.

Option B is incorrect: Consent of states is not mandatory under either Article; only the President must refer the Bill to the concerned State Legislature for its views (not consent).

Option C is incorrect: Both Articles operate through ordinary parliamentary legislation, not constitutional amendments.

Option D is incorrect: Both Articles are within Parliament’s domain; the President’s role is only to refer the Bill under Article 3.

Answer: C [Only three]
Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct: Dadra and Nagar Haveli was liberated by local armed struggle in 1954 from Portuguese control. It was later merged with India in 1961.

Pair 2 is correct: Goa, Daman and Diu were annexed by India through military action (Operation Vijay) in 1961, ending Portuguese rule.

Pair 3 is incorrect: Puducherry was a French possession, not British. It was transferred to India through a treaty of cession with France—de facto in 1954 and de jure in 1962.

Pair 4 is correct: Sikkim joined India via a referendum in 1975, where the majority voted to abolish the monarchy and become a state of India.

Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Special provisions for certain states, such as Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, and Goa, are contained in Part XXI (Articles 371 to 371J) of the Constitution, titled “Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions.”

Statement 2 is correct: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than the North-Eastern states, while the Sixth Schedule pertains to the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Answer: B [1 and 3 only]
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A Bill under Article 3 (for formation of new states or alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states) requires the prior recommendation of the President before being introduced in Parliament.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President is not bound to accept the views of the concerned State Legislature. The Legislature’s views are only advisory, not binding.

Statement 3 is correct: Parliament has the power to alter state boundaries or names without the consent of the state(s) concerned. Only the President must refer the Bill to the concerned State Legislature for its views before Parliament considers it.