Daily Current Affairs Quiz: December 22, 2025

Answer: C [Legal status that enables participation in the political and civic life of a state]
Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: Legal residence only indicates physical stay within a country. It does not automatically confer political rights such as voting, representation, or participation in democratic decision-making.

Option B is incorrect: Membership of a social or religious group relates to cultural or social identity, not to the legal and political relationship between an individual and the state.

Option C is correct: Citizenship in a democratic society is a legal status that enables individuals to participate in political and civic life through rights like voting, representation, and access to constitutional protections.

Option D is incorrect: Possession of private property or land is not a requirement for citizenship, as democratic citizenship is based on equality before law, not economic ownership.

Answer: D [Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2]
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Constitution is described as both flexible and rigid because different amendment procedures exist. Some provisions can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament, while others require a special majority and, in certain cases, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

Statement 2 is correct: Australia, India, and the United States are examples of countries with written constitutions, as their constitutional rules and principles are formally codified in a single authoritative document, clearly defining the structure of government, distribution of powers, and fundamental rights of citizens.

Answer: A [1, 2 and 4 only]
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Preamble begins with the words “We, the people of India,” which clearly indicate that the ultimate source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people. It reflects the principle of popular sovereignty in a democratic polity.

Statement 2 is correct: The Preamble explicitly declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. These terms define the nature of the Indian state, its independence from external control, commitment to social justice, religious neutrality, democratic governance, and republican form of government.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Preamble can be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution and can be amended, provided its basic structure is not violated.

Statement 4 is correct: The Preamble embodies the ideals, objectives, and philosophical foundations that guided the Constitution makers. It sets out the core values such as justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, which serve as guiding principles for constitutional interpretation and governance.

Answer: B [The Parliament of India]
Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: The President of India does not have independent constitutional authority to make laws regarding the acquisition or termination of citizenship. Such powers are legislative in nature and cannot be exercised through executive action alone.

Option B is correct: The power to make provisions relating to the acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship is vested in the Parliament of India under Article 11 of the Constitution, which authorises Parliament to enact laws on citizenship.

Option C is incorrect: The Supreme Court of India interprets and enforces laws related to citizenship but does not possess legislative power to frame or modify provisions governing acquisition or termination of citizenship.

Option D is incorrect: State legislatures have no constitutional competence to legislate on citizenship, as it falls exclusively within the Union List and is governed by parliamentary legislation.

Answer: C [Only Three]
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India has been amended more than 100 times since its commencement in 1950. These amendments reflect the evolving political, social, and economic needs of the country and demonstrate the Constitution’s adaptability over time.

Statement 2 is correct: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, enacted during the Emergency, is known as the “Mini Constitution” because it brought extensive changes affecting the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, and the balance between different organs of government.

Statement 3 is correct: The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India by subsuming multiple central and state indirect taxes, thereby creating a unified indirect tax system aimed at improving efficiency and ease of doing business.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Not every Constitutional Amendment requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures. Such ratification is needed only for amendments affecting federal provisions, while many amendments can be passed solely by Parliament under Article 368.